This quiz works best with JavaScript enabled. Home > English Grammar > Grammar > Test Prep > Gcse > Gcse English Language – Quiz 5 🏠 Homepage 📘 Download PDF Books 📕 Premium PDF Books Gcse English Language Quiz 5 (60 MCQs) Quiz Instructions Select an option to see the correct answer instantly. 1. How do connectives improve your writing? A) They make it more persuasive. B) The help make your argument clear and writing well-structured. C) The make your writing interesting. D) None of the above. Show Answer Correct Answer: B) The help make your argument clear and writing well-structured. 2. How many marks is Question 2 worth on Paper 2? A) 12. B) 16. C) 4. D) 8. Show Answer Correct Answer: D) 8. 3. What is going to be considered a C in the new 9-1 grading system? A) 6. B) 7. C) 5. D) 4. Show Answer Correct Answer: D) 4. 4. Which is the longest exam you will have to sit? A) English Literature Paper 1. B) English Literature Paper 2. C) English Language Paper 2. D) English Language Paper 1. Show Answer Correct Answer: B) English Literature Paper 2. 5. Question 5:What's more important?Amazing vocabulary or spelling? A) Amazing Vocabulary. B) Spelling. C) All the above. D) None of the above. Show Answer Correct Answer: A) Amazing Vocabulary. 6. Which of these is a similarity in tone? A) Both texts use sarcasm. B) One is formal, the other informal. C) One is angry, the other calm. D) None of the above. Show Answer Correct Answer: A) Both texts use sarcasm. 7. How much should you write for Paper 2 Question 4? A) An overall statement then 2 points of comparison. B) 3 paragraphs. C) An overall statement followed by as much as you can. D) An overall statement then a detailed paragraph. Show Answer Correct Answer: A) An overall statement then 2 points of comparison. 8. Which structural feature might you compare? A) Font size. B) Use of headings and subheadings. C) Page numbers. D) None of the above. Show Answer Correct Answer: B) Use of headings and subheadings. 9. What percentage of the marks does Question 5 contribute to Paper 1? A) 75%. B) 25%. C) 50%. D) 100%. Show Answer Correct Answer: C) 50%. 10. Evaluations look at ..... A) The whole extract. B) Half the extract. C) Two Extracts compared. D) No extracts at all. Show Answer Correct Answer: A) The whole extract. 11. What is the best description of analysis? A) Re-capping what you have read and saying what the best parts are. B) Working out how a reader will feel when they read something. C) Identifying errors and making suggestions for improvements. D) Coming to a conclusion about part of a text with supporting arguments to prove your ideas. Show Answer Correct Answer: D) Coming to a conclusion about part of a text with supporting arguments to prove your ideas. 12. Read the following extract from a fictional text. "She stepped quietly into the dimly lit room, her heart pounding in her chest as she listened for any sign of movement."Which word in the extract suggests that the room was not brightly lit? A) Pounding. B) Quietly. C) Movement. D) Dimly. Show Answer Correct Answer: D) Dimly. 13. How many reading questions are there in Section A? A) Five. B) Three. C) Four. D) Two. Show Answer Correct Answer: C) Four. 14. What should you do before writing? A) Start writing immediately. B) Plan and gather main ideas. C) Ignore the topic. D) Write without thinking. Show Answer Correct Answer: B) Plan and gather main ideas. 15. Why do writers use semantic fields? A) To confuse the reader. B) To create atmosphere and reinforce themes. C) To make writing shorter. D) To add humour. Show Answer Correct Answer: B) To create atmosphere and reinforce themes. 16. For 7B, as well as comparing ideas and perspectives you should also try to compare ..... A) Language Features. B) Structure Features. C) Context and Tone. D) All of these. Show Answer Correct Answer: D) All of these. 17. Implicit information is (a) but not stated directly. A) A. suggested. B) Guessed. C) Obvious. D) Sang. Show Answer Correct Answer: A) A. suggested. 18. What does "Find" require you to do according to the text? A) To give an account of. B) To present key points. C) To summarise principal points. D) To select the options that are true (or false). Show Answer Correct Answer: D) To select the options that are true (or false). 19. What is juxtaposition in the context of the passage? A) Description of the vicious nature of the hyena contrasted with its behaviour and ultimate vulnerability at the end of the extract. B) A detailed explanation of the hyena's habitat and diet. C) A comparison between the hyena and other animals in the savannah. D) A chronological account of the hyena's life from birth to death. Show Answer Correct Answer: A) Description of the vicious nature of the hyena contrasted with its behaviour and ultimate vulnerability at the end of the extract. 20. What is atmosphere in a narrative? A) The number of characters. B) The structure of dialogue. C) The ending of the plot. D) The emotional feel or mood of a scene. Show Answer Correct Answer: D) The emotional feel or mood of a scene. 21. Which of these would be classed as structure? A) Emotive language. B) Sensory language. C) Adjectives. D) Simple sentence. Show Answer Correct Answer: D) Simple sentence. 22. What is the highest marks you can get for content and organisation A) 20. B) 0. C) 70. D) 24. Show Answer Correct Answer: D) 24. 23. This question is testing your skills of A) Understanding. B) Terminology. C) Analysis. D) Synthesis. Show Answer Correct Answer: C) Analysis. 24. Why should you use imperatives? A) They create a strong argument and help to persuade your reader to be on your side. B) They emphasize your points. C) All the above. D) None of the above. Show Answer Correct Answer: A) They create a strong argument and help to persuade your reader to be on your side. 25. What is the basic structure of an article? A) Opening, middle, and end. B) Title, subheadings, and bibliography. C) Introduction, body, and references. D) Abstract, methods, and conclusion. Show Answer Correct Answer: A) Opening, middle, and end. 26. Name two persuasive techniques mentioned for Transactional Writing. A) Sensory language, Emotive language. B) Rhetorical questions, Statistics. C) Metaphors, Similes. D) Short sentences, Long sentences. Show Answer Correct Answer: B) Rhetorical questions, Statistics. 27. The line that functions as a narrative hook and shifts the mood for the group when seen on Daisy's phone is ..... A) DON'T OPEN IT. B) Everything is fine here. C) Open the window now. D) Meet me at the gym. Show Answer Correct Answer: A) DON'T OPEN IT. 28. What is the effect of using adjectives such as 'ugly', 'shaggy', and 'coarse' to describe the hyena's appearance? A) To emphasise the unpleasant appearance of the hyena. B) To show the hyena is friendly and approachable. C) To highlight the hyena's intelligence. D) To suggest the hyena is a rare animal. Show Answer Correct Answer: A) To emphasise the unpleasant appearance of the hyena. 29. What are the two types of tasks you might choose from for Question 5? A) Argumentative and Persuasive. B) Reflective and Critical. C) Descriptive and Narrative. D) Expository and Analytical. Show Answer Correct Answer: C) Descriptive and Narrative. 30. Identify the literary device used in the sentence:'The stars danced in the night sky.' A) Simile. B) Personification. C) Hyperbole. D) Metaphor. Show Answer Correct Answer: B) Personification. 31. Which of these is NOT a persuasive technique? A) Emotive language. B) Adverb use. C) Repetition. D) Direct address. Show Answer Correct Answer: B) Adverb use. 32. When writing a leaflet, I need to write in columns so it can be folded into three sections. A) True. B) False. C) All the above. D) None of the above. Show Answer Correct Answer: B) False. 33. What is the meaning of "Explain" in the text? A) To give reasons. B) To present clarifying examples. C) To present key points. D) To investigate closely. Show Answer Correct Answer: A) To give reasons. 34. What is the main focus of Paper 2? A) Creative writing. B) Fiction analysis. C) Writers' viewpoints and perspectives. D) Poetry comparison. Show Answer Correct Answer: C) Writers' viewpoints and perspectives. 35. How do you structure your answer for Paper 2 Question 4? A) Statement about the viewpoint in Source A + Quote + Method + explanation of effects + link back to viewpoint + contrast to Source B viewpoint + Quote + Method + explanation of effects + link back to viewpoint. B) Statement about the viewpoint in Source A + Quote + link back to viewpoint + contrast to Source B viewpoint + Quote + link back to viewpoint. C) All the above. D) None of the above. Show Answer Correct Answer: A) Statement about the viewpoint in Source A + Quote + Method + explanation of effects + link back to viewpoint + contrast to Source B viewpoint + Quote + Method + explanation of effects + link back to viewpoint. 36. Attempts to create atmosphere/mood is a feature found in both Upper and Lower Level 2 according to the mark scheme. A) True. B) False. C) All the above. D) None of the above. Show Answer Correct Answer: A) True. 37. What do you understand by "What do you understand" ? A) To retrieve and interpret information from a text. B) To give reasons. C) To investigate closely. D) To present clarifying examples. Show Answer Correct Answer: A) To retrieve and interpret information from a text. 38. How many papers do you sit for your English Language GCSE? A) 4. B) 2. C) 3. D) 1. Show Answer Correct Answer: B) 2. 39. What does a narrative "shift" mean? A) When punctuation changes. B) When the plot restarts. C) A move in time, focus, or perspective. D) When characters get older. Show Answer Correct Answer: C) A move in time, focus, or perspective. 40. What is the total duration of Paper 2? A) 2 hours. B) 1 hour 30 minutes. C) 1 hour. D) 2 hours 15 minutes. Show Answer Correct Answer: A) 2 hours. 41. Which sentence shows the weakest use of double adjectives? A) The narrow, crooked path wound into the woods. B) The tall, skeletal trees clawed at the sky. C) The cold, icy breeze scraped his skin. D) The big, nice dog barked happily. Show Answer Correct Answer: D) The big, nice dog barked happily. 42. What are the key elements of a good narrative? A) Tone, mood, symbolism, foreshadowing, point of view. B) Plot, characters, descriptions, theme, conflict. C) Introduction, conclusion, exposition, rising action, falling action. D) Pacing, setting, dialogue, resolution, climax. Show Answer Correct Answer: B) Plot, characters, descriptions, theme, conflict. 43. Which set of double adjectives best creates a tense atmosphere? A) Bright, colourful. B) Calm, gentle. C) Dark, suffocating. D) Warm, cosy. Show Answer Correct Answer: C) Dark, suffocating. 44. What advice does Sam give that shows cautious reasoning in face of potential manipulation? A) Run to the playground immediately. B) Don't open it if someone is messing. C) Post the story online quickly. D) Turn off the corridor lights now. Show Answer Correct Answer: B) Don't open it if someone is messing. 45. How can you identify sarcasm? A) Through punctuation. B) Through tone and exaggeration. C) Through statistics. D) None of the above. Show Answer Correct Answer: B) Through tone and exaggeration. 46. How long should you spend on Question 4? A) 25 minutes. B) 12 minutes. C) 20 minutes. D) 16 minutes. Show Answer Correct Answer: C) 20 minutes. 47. Which of the following is a typical question type in the AQA GCSE English Language exam? A) Identifying Chemical Elements. B) Calculating Angles. C) Essay on a Given Topic. D) Multiple Choice on Historical Dates. Show Answer Correct Answer: C) Essay on a Given Topic. 48. What worries Pi about the hyena? A) The hyena's colorful fur. B) Remembering what his father told him about hyenas. C) The hyena's ability to fly. D) The hyena's love for water. Show Answer Correct Answer: B) Remembering what his father told him about hyenas. 49. What should you include in a story (narrative) A) Characters. B) Language techniques. C) A plot. D) All of the above. Show Answer Correct Answer: D) All of the above. 50. Which sentence uses double adjectives to create atmosphere? A) Waves, stormy crashed relentless. B) The waves crashed against the shore. C) The stormy, relentless waves crashed against the shore. D) The waves were big. Show Answer Correct Answer: C) The stormy, relentless waves crashed against the shore. 51. In how many of your GCSE papers will you come across a 19th century text? A) 4. B) 2. C) 1. D) 3. Show Answer Correct Answer: D) 3. 52. Which assessment objective requires candidates to use a range of vocabulary and sentence structures for clarity, purpose and effect, with accurate spelling and punctuation, and constitutes 20% of the marks for each specification as a whole? A) AO4. B) AO6. C) AO1. D) AO2. Show Answer Correct Answer: B) AO6. 53. Who is the author of the extract used as Source A in GCSE English Language Paper 1? A) Yann Martel. B) George Orwell. C) J.K. Rowling. D) Charles Dickens. Show Answer Correct Answer: A) Yann Martel. 54. How does the Reading Section (Section A) in Paper 1 assess students' skills? A) By analysing the writer's use of language and structure. B) By summarisng the main idea of the text. C) By identifying grammatical errors. D) By translating the text into another language. Show Answer Correct Answer: A) By analysing the writer's use of language and structure. 55. Which paper asks you to compare two texts? A) Paper 1. B) Paper 2. C) Both papers. D) Neither paper. Show Answer Correct Answer: B) Paper 2. 56. How many TEE paragraphs do you need to do for question 4, paper 1? A) Two. B) One. C) Four. D) Three. Show Answer Correct Answer: D) Three. 57. How many sources are provided in Section A? A) 4. B) 3. C) 1. D) 2. Show Answer Correct Answer: D) 2. 58. What should you focus on in Question 4? A) Comparing viewpoints and methods. B) Spelling and grammar. C) Summarising the text. D) Structure of the text. Show Answer Correct Answer: A) Comparing viewpoints and methods. 59. What are you being assessed on in Paper 1 Question 4? A) How well you understand the plot. B) The length of your response. C) Your ability to summarize the text. D) Your critical evaluation of the text and use of evidence. Show Answer Correct Answer: D) Your critical evaluation of the text and use of evidence. 60. What is meant by rising action in the structure of the passage? A) Increase of tension and pace as the hyena's wild behaviour escalates. B) The resolution of the main conflict in the story. C) The introduction of the main characters and setting. D) A summary of the events after the climax. Show Answer Correct Answer: A) Increase of tension and pace as the hyena's wild behaviour escalates. ← PreviousNext →Related QuizzesTest Prep QuizzesGrammar QuizzesGcse English Language Quiz 1Gcse English Language Quiz 2Gcse English Language Quiz 3Gcse English Language Quiz 4Gcse English Language Quiz 6Gcse English Language Quiz 7Gcse English Language Quiz 8Gcse English Language Quiz 9 🏠 Back to Homepage 📘 Download PDF Books 📕 Premium PDF Books