This quiz works best with JavaScript enabled. Home > English Grammar > Grammar > Test Prep > Ielts > Ielts Speaking – Quiz 15 🏠 Homepage 📘 Download PDF Books 📕 Premium PDF Books Ielts Speaking Quiz 15 (60 MCQs) Quiz Instructions Select an option to see the correct answer instantly. 1. Choose the best response. Question:Is there anything special you can do in your home town? A) My hometown is small and not busy. It's located on the north east of Seoul. B) I usually go to the supermarket to buy vegetable and fruits. I go there on Sunday morning. C) Not really, I think my hometown is a little boring. We mostly take the train to Shanghai if we want to do something. D) Not so many people know about this mountain. Show Answer Correct Answer: C) Not really, I think my hometown is a little boring. We mostly take the train to Shanghai if we want to do something. 2. What is the recommended strategy for the Writing module? A) Carefully read the prompt, plan your response, and then write a well-structured essay with clear arguments and supporting evidence. B) Ignore the prompt and write about a completely different topic. C) Copy and paste a pre-written essay without making any changes. D) Quickly write a short essay without planning or organizing your thoughts. Show Answer Correct Answer: A) Carefully read the prompt, plan your response, and then write a well-structured essay with clear arguments and supporting evidence. 3. How many parts does the Speaking section contain? A) 1. B) 3. C) 2. D) None of the above. Show Answer Correct Answer: B) 3. 4. In which part of the test does the examiner usually ask some general questions about one's work, studies or hometown? A) Part 1. B) Part 2. C) Part 3. D) None of the above. Show Answer Correct Answer: A) Part 1. 5. What type of language is English? A) A stress timed language. B) A syllable timed language. C) All the above. D) None of the above. Show Answer Correct Answer: A) A stress timed language. 6. You will be interviewed about personal information in which part? A) 1. B) 3. C) 2. D) 4. Show Answer Correct Answer: A) 1. 7. What should you do if you make a mistake during the Speaking test? A) Do not panic. B) Ignore it. C) Panic. D) Correct yourself immediately. Show Answer Correct Answer: A) Do not panic. 8. What is the importance of using linkers in sentences? A) To make sentences shorter. B) To extend sentences and make them more complex. C) To confuse the listener. D) To avoid using vocabulary. Show Answer Correct Answer: B) To extend sentences and make them more complex. 9. Over-reliance on tech (n) A) Depending too much on technology. B) Relying on manual processes. C) Avoiding technology altogether. D) Using technology in moderation. Show Answer Correct Answer: A) Depending too much on technology. 10. What is the main purpose of using the Past Perfect in IELTS Speaking Part 2? A) To talk about repeated past actions. B) To show an action that happened before another past event. C) To describe background scenes. D) To describe a future plan. Show Answer Correct Answer: B) To show an action that happened before another past event. 11. Do you think robots can have emotions? Why or why not? A) Yes, because they can learn and adapt like humans. B) Yes, because they are programmed to simulate emotions. C) No. D) Yes, because they can express emotions through their actions. Show Answer Correct Answer: C) No. 12. Which criterion focuses on stress, intonation, and rhythm when speaking? A) Lexical Resource. B) Pronunciation. C) Grammatical Range and Accuracy. D) Fluency and Coherence. Show Answer Correct Answer: B) Pronunciation. 13. What phrase can you use to buy time before answering a question? A) "Let me see now, that really is quite a tricky question. Well, I suppose I would have to say that ". B) "Oh gosh! I'm really not sure about that, but probably ". C) Both of the above. D) None of the above. Show Answer Correct Answer: C) Both of the above. 14. Which of the followings is NOT a collocation? A) Environmentally-friendly. B) Energy-efficient. C) Obsolete. D) Labor-saving. Show Answer Correct Answer: C) Obsolete. 15. Which part is described here? The examiner asks further questions < ..... > These questions give you an opportunity to discuss more abstract issues and ideas. A) Part 2. B) Part 3. C) Part 1. D) None of the above. Show Answer Correct Answer: B) Part 3. 16. The different parts that something is made of; the way in which the different parts are organized A) Mountainous. B) Luxurious. C) Diverse. D) Composition. Show Answer Correct Answer: D) Composition. 17. Choose the best response for this question"Is there anything you don't like about where you live?" A) There are many interesting places to visit. We are famous with statues and war museum. B) Yes, the weather is terrible. We only get about six weeks of summer, and it's very cold most of the time. C) I don't know. D) The food. Yes, there are many traditional food during the festival. Show Answer Correct Answer: B) Yes, the weather is terrible. We only get about six weeks of summer, and it's very cold most of the time. 18. We use "I wouldn't say I'm gifted but '' to talk about A) Opinion. B) Ability. C) Compare. D) Past habits. Show Answer Correct Answer: B) Ability. 19. Speech rate refers to the ability to produce continuous speech without stopping to think for language and ideas. A) TRUE. B) FALSE. C) All the above. D) None of the above. Show Answer Correct Answer: A) TRUE. 20. Where does the speaker plan to catch up with Nate? A) In London. B) In Paris. C) In New York. D) In Tokyo. Show Answer Correct Answer: A) In London. 21. How many parts are there in Speaking IELTS test? A) 2. B) 1. C) 4. D) 3. Show Answer Correct Answer: D) 3. 22. Language hesitation (lexis and grammar) often occurs in the higher band and content-related hesitation often occurs in the lower band. A) TRUE. B) FALSE. C) All the above. D) None of the above. Show Answer Correct Answer: B) FALSE. 23. In Part 3 of the Speaking test, what is expected? A) A short introduction. B) A personal opinion on unrelated topics. C) A longer discussion about the topic from Part 2. D) A summary of your answers. Show Answer Correct Answer: C) A longer discussion about the topic from Part 2. 24. Which of the following is an illustration of a 2-sentence answer for the following question?"Do you love sweets?" A) I love them. I like them. B) I love barbecue. Then maybe crackers, too. C) Yes. I do. D) Yes. I love them because they are delicious. Show Answer Correct Answer: D) Yes. I love them because they are delicious. 25. In Part 1, the examiner will ask you about: A) Personal questions about familiar topics. B) Opinion questions about hot topics. C) All the above. D) None of the above. Show Answer Correct Answer: A) Personal questions about familiar topics. 26. In this part (part 2), you will have A) No time to prepare. B) 30 seconds to prepare. C) 1 minute to prepare. D) None of the above. Show Answer Correct Answer: C) 1 minute to prepare. 27. What is the benefit of having an idea bank for the speaking test? A) To think more during the test. B) To have ready ideas and vocabulary. C) To confuse yourself. D) To avoid speaking practice. Show Answer Correct Answer: B) To have ready ideas and vocabulary. 28. On which syllable is 'university' stressed? A) Fourth syllable. B) Third syllable. C) Second syllable. D) First syllable. Show Answer Correct Answer: B) Third syllable. 29. Which section/part in IELTS Listening test is about a conversation between up to four people set in an educational or training context (e.g. school) A) Section/part 2. B) Section/part 1. C) Section/part 3. D) Section/part 4. Show Answer Correct Answer: C) Section/part 3. 30. What should you do if the examiner interrupts you while answering a question in Part 1 of the IELTS Speaking test? A) Continue speaking, ignoring the interruption. B) Politely stop speaking and wait for the next question. C) Ask the examiner to repeat the question. D) Challenge the examiner's interruption and continue speaking. Show Answer Correct Answer: B) Politely stop speaking and wait for the next question. 31. Which word describes a situation that is not clearly defined and can have more than one interpretation? A) Transparent. B) Fixed. C) Ambiguous. D) Explicit. Show Answer Correct Answer: C) Ambiguous. 32. How are your IELTS Speaking scores calculated? A) Fluency and coherence, lexical resource, grammatical range and accuracy, and pronunciation. B) Fluency and coherence, lexical resource. C) Fluency and coherence, lexical resource, grammatical range and accuracy. D) Lexical resource, grammatical range and accuracy, and pronunciation. Show Answer Correct Answer: A) Fluency and coherence, lexical resource, grammatical range and accuracy, and pronunciation. 33. Which of the following statements is generally true for all IELTS speaking tests? A) Give the most concise answer possible and no more in part 3. B) Just be on topic, express your opinions, and show your skills. C) Just "Use the Force". D) Confusing the examiner can work to your advantage so always try to do this. E) It's a truth test so focus on being correct or right the entire time. Show Answer Correct Answer: B) Just be on topic, express your opinions, and show your skills. 34. Which sentence uses the correct use of inversion? A) Never has she seen such a beautiful sunset. B) Never she did see such a beautiful sunset. C) Never she has seen such a beautiful sunset. D) Never she had seen such a beautiful sunset. Show Answer Correct Answer: A) Never has she seen such a beautiful sunset. 35. In the part 1 you will be asked questions on A) Personal topics. B) Academic subjects. C) Topics in the news. D) None of the above. Show Answer Correct Answer: A) Personal topics. 36. A break / A rest A) Do. B) Make. C) Take. D) None of the above. Show Answer Correct Answer: C) Take. 37. The quality or state of being correct or precise. A) Dialect. B) Communication. C) Accuracy. D) Fluency. Show Answer Correct Answer: C) Accuracy. 38. Descirbe the focus of the questions in Part 1. A) Simple generla questions, familiar topics, personal focus. B) More complex questions based on one topic only, personal focus. C) More complex questions based on one topic only, impersonal focus. D) None of the above. Show Answer Correct Answer: A) Simple generla questions, familiar topics, personal focus. 39. The speaking test takes place on the same day as the other three parts of the test. A) True. B) False. C) All the above. D) None of the above. Show Answer Correct Answer: B) False. 40. Fill in the blank:Were it not for his stubbornness, he ..... (can achieve) so much more. A) Could achieved. B) Could have achieved. C) Can achieve. D) Will have achieved. Show Answer Correct Answer: B) Could have achieved. 41. In order to be rewarded band 6 and above, you must be willing to speak at length. A) TRUE. B) FALSE. C) All the above. D) None of the above. Show Answer Correct Answer: A) TRUE. 42. Lessons / Classes / Courses A) Do. B) Make. C) Take. D) None of the above. Show Answer Correct Answer: C) Take. 43. What is the total duration of the IELTS Speaking test? A) 5-7 minutes. B) 11-14 minutes. C) 8-10 minutes. D) 20-25 minutes. Show Answer Correct Answer: B) 11-14 minutes. 44. What happens after Part 2? A) The examiner gives you a new cue card to speak on. B) You are asked to read a passage. C) The examiner gives you a new topic for a discussion. D) The test is over. Show Answer Correct Answer: C) The examiner gives you a new topic for a discussion. 45. How long does speaking part 3 last? A) 2 minutes. B) 11-14 minutes. C) 4-5 minutes. D) 3-4 minutes. Show Answer Correct Answer: C) 4-5 minutes. 46. Which phrase is used to soften criticism? A) I know for a fact that . B) I am sure that . C) It could be that . D) I think it's the best option. Show Answer Correct Answer: C) It could be that . 47. In IELTS Speaking Part 3, you are allowed time to plan the answer. A) TRUE. B) FALSE. C) All the above. D) None of the above. Show Answer Correct Answer: B) FALSE. 48. What is the best way to practise this task? A) With a partner. B) In groups. C) Alone. D) None of the above. Show Answer Correct Answer: A) With a partner. 49. Do you think robots will replace humans in certain jobs? Why or why not? A) Maybe. B) I'm not sure. C) Yes. D) No. Show Answer Correct Answer: C) Yes. 50. I really enjoy the ..... air in my hometown. A) Noisy. B) Polluted. C) Quiet. D) Fresh. Show Answer Correct Answer: D) Fresh. 51. Why is "redirecting to related topics" a useful strategy in IELTS Speaking? A) It helps you avoid answering the question. B) It increases your score by confusing the examiner. C) It gives you more opportunities to use grammar structures like narrative tenses. D) It allows you to speak for a shorter time. Show Answer Correct Answer: C) It gives you more opportunities to use grammar structures like narrative tenses. 52. In Part 2 of the Speaking test, you must speak for how long? A) Not limited time. B) 10 minutes. C) 1-2 minutes. D) 3-4 minutes. Show Answer Correct Answer: C) 1-2 minutes. 53. How many criteria are used to mark your speaking? A) 1. B) 2. C) 3. D) 4. Show Answer Correct Answer: D) 4. 54. In speaking part 3, I can express my opinion on a topic. A) False. B) True. C) All the above. D) None of the above. Show Answer Correct Answer: B) True. 55. How can you extend your answers in Part 3 of the IELTS Speaking test? A) Avoid supporting your main point. B) Repeat the same information. C) Add details, explanations, or examples. D) Keep the answers short. Show Answer Correct Answer: C) Add details, explanations, or examples. 56. A pause in speaking is defined as ..... A) Any stop in speaking, no matter how brief. B) 3 or more seconds without producing an English word. C) Breathing in. D) 5 or more seconds without speaking. Show Answer Correct Answer: B) 3 or more seconds without producing an English word. 57. In IELTS Speaking Part 3, the examiner will ask further questions which are connected to the topic in part 2. A) TRUE. B) FALSE. C) All the above. D) None of the above. Show Answer Correct Answer: A) TRUE. 58. How much time do you have to speak in Part 2? A) 30 seconds. B) 1 minute. C) 3 minutes. D) 2 minutes. Show Answer Correct Answer: D) 2 minutes. 59. Pieces come in various materials, colors, size and form used in construction by kids. A) Cards. B) Dominoes. C) Chess. D) Bulding blocks. Show Answer Correct Answer: D) Bulding blocks. 60. Why arecandidates given apenandpaper in Speaking Part 2? A) To draw. B) To write a story. C) I don't know:(. D) To take notes. Show Answer Correct Answer: D) To take notes. ← PreviousNext →Related QuizzesTest Prep QuizzesGrammar QuizzesIelts Speaking Quiz 1Ielts Speaking Quiz 2Ielts Speaking Quiz 3Ielts Speaking Quiz 4Ielts Speaking Quiz 5Ielts Speaking Quiz 6Ielts Speaking Quiz 7Ielts Speaking Quiz 8 🏠 Back to Homepage 📘 Download PDF Books 📕 Premium PDF Books