This quiz works best with JavaScript enabled. Home > English Grammar > Grammar > Test Prep > Ielts > Ielts Speaking – Quiz 22 🏠 Homepage 📘 Download PDF Books 📕 Premium PDF Books Ielts Speaking Quiz 22 (60 MCQs) Quiz Instructions Select an option to see the correct answer instantly. 1. Online learning platforms (n) A) Web-based platforms used for studying and attending classes. B) Physical classrooms for in-person learning. C) Social media sites for educational discussions. D) Video streaming services for entertainment. Show Answer Correct Answer: A) Web-based platforms used for studying and attending classes. 2. What part of the Speaking is the following:"The examiner gives you a task card which asks you to talk about a particular topic and which includes points you can cover in your talk. You are given 1 minute to prepare your talk, and are given a pencil and paper to make notes. You talk for 1-2 minutes on the topic. The examiner may then ask you one or two questions on the same topic." A) Part 1. B) Part 2. C) Part 3. D) None of the above. Show Answer Correct Answer: B) Part 2. 3. What is one type of Emphasizing Cohesive Device? A) In addition. B) Due to. C) Such as. D) In particular. Show Answer Correct Answer: D) In particular. 4. How can vocabulary be improved for the IELTS speaking test? A) Using the same words repeatedly. B) Watching TV shows in your native language. C) Reading extensively, learning new words, watching TV in English, and practicing using them in speaking exercises. D) Avoiding speaking in English. Show Answer Correct Answer: C) Reading extensively, learning new words, watching TV in English, and practicing using them in speaking exercises. 5. You need to sound ..... to gain a higher score. A) Good. B) Natural. C) Serious. D) None of the above. Show Answer Correct Answer: B) Natural. 6. What is the name of Speaking Part 1? A) Two-way discussion. B) Individual Long Turn. C) Greeting and Introduction. D) Counter-argument. Show Answer Correct Answer: C) Greeting and Introduction. 7. Is it okay to make grammar or pronunciation mistakes during Part 2? A) No, even one mistake will lower your score. B) Yes, small mistakes are okay if you can still be understood. C) No, grammar must be perfect in Part 2. D) Yes, but only if you correct yourself. Show Answer Correct Answer: B) Yes, small mistakes are okay if you can still be understood. 8. Who assesses the test-takers in the Speaking module? A) A group of examiners. B) The test-taker themselves. C) The test-taker's peers. D) One trained examiner. Show Answer Correct Answer: D) One trained examiner. 9. Coherence and cohesion are important aspects evaluated during the IELTS speaking test. A) True. B) False. C) Not given. D) None of the above. Show Answer Correct Answer: A) True. 10. "A bustling city with sparkling lights" A) Bustling city with sparkling lights. B) Secluded beach. C) Quiet countryside. D) Historical ruins. Show Answer Correct Answer: A) Bustling city with sparkling lights. 11. In part 2, you will talk for a maximum of A) 1 minute to prepare. B) 2 minutes to prepare. C) 3 minutes to prepare. D) None of the above. Show Answer Correct Answer: B) 2 minutes to prepare. 12. What is the purpose of the Writing module in the IELTS test? A) To assess the test taker's listening comprehension skills. B) To assess the test taker's ability to write in an academic or semi-formal style. C) To measure the test taker's ability to speak fluently. D) To evaluate the test taker's grammar and vocabulary skills. Show Answer Correct Answer: B) To assess the test taker's ability to write in an academic or semi-formal style. 13. The scientist's groundbreaking work has had a profound ..... on the field of genetics. A) Effect. B) Cause. C) Change. D) Influence. Show Answer Correct Answer: D) Influence. 14. Customers' commitment to a brand A) Brand loyalty. B) Brand image. C) Sales target. D) Market share. Show Answer Correct Answer: A) Brand loyalty. 15. What are some of the criteria for your fluency score? A) Expanded answers. B) Natural speech. C) Linking words. D) All of the above. E) Only expanded answers and natural speech. Show Answer Correct Answer: D) All of the above. 16. Someone who has a lot of energy and is very active? A) Bossy. B) Graceful. C) Energetic. D) None of the above. Show Answer Correct Answer: C) Energetic. 17. Digital detox (n) A) A break from digital devices to reduce stress or fatigue. B) A method to improve digital marketing strategies. C) An increase in screen time to enhance productivity. D) A type of software for managing digital content. Show Answer Correct Answer: A) A break from digital devices to reduce stress or fatigue. 18. Their services were ..... recommended. A) Highly. B) Extremely. C) Exceedingly. D) None of the above. Show Answer Correct Answer: A) Highly. 19. What is an example of a thinking sound that can lower your fluency score? A) No. B) Hmm. C) Yes. D) Maybe. Show Answer Correct Answer: B) Hmm. 20. In the approach "In contrast", we follow A-E-C instrument? A) YES. B) NO. C) All the above. D) None of the above. Show Answer Correct Answer: A) YES. 21. Do you think ( noun ) is important? Talk about ..... A) Opinion. B) Compare. C) Evaluate. D) All of them. Show Answer Correct Answer: D) All of them. 22. Which of the following will help your grammar score? A) Range of structures and a variety of sentences. B) Conditionals and modal verbs. C) A positive attitude and optimistic outlook. D) All of the above. E) Only the two that don't include attitude. Show Answer Correct Answer: E) Only the two that don't include attitude. 23. ..... from traffic makes city life stressful. A) Peace. B) Silence. C) Calmness. D) Noise. Show Answer Correct Answer: D) Noise. 24. What is one type of extending answer is giving a very short answer you can add in some extra details with 'and', 'with' or 'also'? A) Feelings and Opinions. B) Past Comparisons. C) Combining Details. D) Contrasting Details. Show Answer Correct Answer: C) Combining Details. 25. Which one is need to be stressed on the first syllable? A) Redo. B) Undo. C) Chicken. D) Inside. Show Answer Correct Answer: C) Chicken. 26. A set of small plates, cups, etc., with a matching design, for serving tea and small amounts of food such as cakes and sandwiches A) Tea set. B) Doll. C) Build. D) Sandpit. Show Answer Correct Answer: A) Tea set. 27. You should only talk about the points on the task card. A) Yes. B) No. C) All the above. D) None of the above. Show Answer Correct Answer: A) Yes. 28. What is the recommended way to start the long turn in the IELTS Speaking test? A) Start with a joke. B) Start with a quote. C) Start with a question. D) Start with a memorised phrase. Show Answer Correct Answer: D) Start with a memorised phrase. 29. Which sentence shows an example of nominalization? A) Please take this into consideration. B) Please consider this. C) All the above. D) None of the above. Show Answer Correct Answer: A) Please take this into consideration. 30. Fill in the blank with the correct form of the verb:If she ..... (study) harder, she would have passed the exam. A) Studies. B) Has studied. C) Studied. D) Had studied. Show Answer Correct Answer: D) Had studied. 31. I think that being an international student is not that difficult ..... , I find it easy. A) On the other hand,. B) For this reason,. C) As a matter of fact,. D) None of the above. Show Answer Correct Answer: C) As a matter of fact,. 32. In part 2, how long can you prepare for your talk: A) 1 minute. B) 2 minutes. C) Until you are ready to talk. D) None of the above. Show Answer Correct Answer: A) 1 minute. 33. I can ask for specific words to be paraphrased in part 3 A) True. B) False. C) All the above. D) None of the above. Show Answer Correct Answer: A) True. 34. How is the IELTS Speaking date scheduled? A) 2-3 days before/after the other 3 parts. B) On the same day or seven days before/after the other 3 parts. C) Right after the other 3 parts. D) On the same day of the other 3 parts. Show Answer Correct Answer: B) On the same day or seven days before/after the other 3 parts. 35. What is Part 2 called? A) The Discussion. B) The Interview. C) The Long Turn. D) None of the above. Show Answer Correct Answer: C) The Long Turn. 36. What topic is discussed in part 3? A) Related to part 1. B) Related to part 2. C) All the above. D) None of the above. Show Answer Correct Answer: B) Related to part 2. 37. Grammatical accuracy refers to the range of appropriate structures a speaker produces. True or false? A) True. B) False. C) All the above. D) None of the above. Show Answer Correct Answer: B) False. 38. The examiner evaluates your ability to express ideas clearly and coherently during the speaking test. A) True. B) False. C) Not given. D) None of the above. Show Answer Correct Answer: A) True. 39. The last summer was boiling hot, the ..... reached 40 degree Celcius A) Average. B) Average temperature. C) Climate. D) Weather. Show Answer Correct Answer: B) Average temperature. 40. How are the questions in Part 1 delivered by the examiner? A) Spontaneously. B) Based on the candidate's responses. C) From a script. D) Chosen by the candidate. Show Answer Correct Answer: C) From a script. 41. What role does art play in society? A) Art plays a vital role in society by expressing ideas, fostering creativity, and reflecting cultural values. B) Art is only valuable when it is commercially successful. C) Art is solely for entertainment purposes. D) Art has no impact on cultural identity. Show Answer Correct Answer: A) Art plays a vital role in society by expressing ideas, fostering creativity, and reflecting cultural values. 42. Clear facts improve ..... A) Brand credibility. B) Popularity. C) Visibility. D) Design. Show Answer Correct Answer: A) Brand credibility. 43. Should you give short, one-word answers in the Speaking test? A) No, you should elaborate and extend your answers. B) It doesn't matter. C) Yes, but only in Part 1. D) Yes, but only in part 2. Show Answer Correct Answer: A) No, you should elaborate and extend your answers. 44. Online ads increase ..... quickly. A) Brand awareness. B) Brand loyalty. C) Product quality. D) Price range. Show Answer Correct Answer: A) Brand awareness. 45. Following or belonging to the customs or ways of behaving that have continued in a group of people or society for a long time without changing: A) Communication skills. B) Teddy bear. C) Traditional. D) Board games. Show Answer Correct Answer: C) Traditional. 46. Discuss your favorite book or movie. What themes does it explore? A) Inception is a romantic comedy about a couple's journey. B) Inception focuses on the importance of friendship and loyalty. C) Inception is a documentary about the history of cinema. D) Inception explores themes of dreams versus reality, the power of the subconscious, and human emotions. Show Answer Correct Answer: D) Inception explores themes of dreams versus reality, the power of the subconscious, and human emotions. 47. Which part of the test are liked by theme or topic? A) Part 1 & Part 3. B) Part 2 & Part 3. C) Part 1 & Part 2. D) None of the above. Show Answer Correct Answer: B) Part 2 & Part 3. 48. The introduction of new technology is expected to ..... productivity in many industries. A) Suppress. B) Stagnate. C) Ignore. D) Enhance. Show Answer Correct Answer: D) Enhance. 49. The part of something that remains A) Visit. B) Rest. C) Tour. D) Ride. Show Answer Correct Answer: B) Rest. 50. Be green with envy = A) Be happy about sth. B) Be a natural lover. C) Be positive about sth. D) Be jealous with sb. Show Answer Correct Answer: D) Be jealous with sb. 51. In Part 3, there will be A) 7-10 questions. B) 1-3 questions. C) 4-6 questions. D) None of the above. Show Answer Correct Answer: C) 4-6 questions. 52. You should write your notes in full sentences. A) Yes. B) No. C) All the above. D) None of the above. Show Answer Correct Answer: B) No. 53. What are the assessment criteria? A) Fluency and coherence; vocabulary; pronunciation; depth of ideas. B) Accent, grammar; vocabulary; coherence and fluency. C) Fluency and coherence, grammar; vocabulary; pronunciation. D) None of the above. Show Answer Correct Answer: C) Fluency and coherence, grammar; vocabulary; pronunciation. 54. In part 3, the examiner will ask the candidate: A) General questions about themselves, their families, their jobs and other familiar topics. B) Questions about the society and the general public, which are related to the topic of Part 2. C) Describe a picture. D) To give an individual long talk. Show Answer Correct Answer: B) Questions about the society and the general public, which are related to the topic of Part 2. 55. Specific age or group A) Price range. B) Audience size. C) Sales volume. D) Target demographic. Show Answer Correct Answer: D) Target demographic. 56. If sentences, relative clauses and subordinate clauses ( while, as, because) are examples of ..... A) Complex structures. B) Basic sentence forms. C) Different tenses. D) None of the above. Show Answer Correct Answer: A) Complex structures. 57. The action of pausing or hesitating before saying or doing something A) Linguistics. B) Language barrier. C) Mother tongue. D) Hesitation. Show Answer Correct Answer: D) Hesitation. 58. The second step of the Deliberate Practice Roadmap is to A) Set a SMART goal. B) Maintain motivation. C) Assess your limits. D) Practice with focus. Show Answer Correct Answer: A) Set a SMART goal. 59. What is the problem with using the phrase "As for me" incorrectly? A) It doesn't exist in English. B) It's not used to express personal opinion directly. C) It sounds too formal. D) It can lower your score in grammar. Show Answer Correct Answer: B) It's not used to express personal opinion directly. 60. Which word is a synonym for the red word?Please notify the staff that there will be a meeting tomorrow. A) Instruct. B) Inform. C) Advise. D) Warn. Show Answer Correct Answer: B) Inform. ← PreviousNext →Related QuizzesTest Prep QuizzesGrammar QuizzesIelts Speaking Quiz 1Ielts Speaking Quiz 2Ielts Speaking Quiz 3Ielts Speaking Quiz 4Ielts Speaking Quiz 5Ielts Speaking Quiz 6Ielts Speaking Quiz 7Ielts Speaking Quiz 8 🏠 Back to Homepage 📘 Download PDF Books 📕 Premium PDF Books