This quiz works best with JavaScript enabled.
Home
>
English Grammar
>
Grammar
>
Test Prep
>
Oet
>
Oet Listening – Quiz 1
Oet Listening Quiz 1 (24 MCQs)
This multiple-choice question set evaluates critical listening and analysis skills, focusing on understanding context clues and inferring meaning from medical scenarios. It also assesses the ability to analyze speaker's perspective and supporting evidence, as well as immediate auditory comprehension and note-taking skills in OET Listening Part A, B, and C extracts.
Quiz Instructions
Select an option to see the correct answer instantly.
1.
You hear members of a hospital committee discussing problems in the x-ray department. Tje problems are due to delay in
A) Buying a replacement machine.
B) Getting aprovel for a repair to a machine.
C) Identifying a problem with a particular machine.
D) None of these.
Show Answer
Explanations:
The correct answer is B) Getting approval for a repair to a machine because delays in obtaining necessary approvals can significantly impact the functionality and efficiency of medical equipment, leading to problems in the x-ray department.
Option Analysis:
Option A:
Buying a replacement machine involves procurement processes which are typically more straightforward than getting approval for repairs. Delays here would be less likely to cause ongoing operational issues.
Option B:
Approval for repair is crucial as it ensures that the equipment can continue operating without interruption, and delays in this process directly affect departmental operations.
Option C:
Identifying a problem with a machine might be a routine part of maintenance but does not inherently cause operational delays unless there are issues with reporting or addressing these problems.
Option D:
This option is incorrect as one of the other options accurately describes the issue.
2.
How many points do I need to get a grade B in Listening?
A) 42.
B) 40.
C) 30 and higher.
D) 25 and lower.
Show Answer
Explanations:
The correct answer is C) 30 and higher. In the OET Listening test, a grade B typically requires achieving at least 30 points out of 40 possible points. This score indicates that you have demonstrated a good level of understanding in listening to healthcare-related English.
Option Analysis:
Option A:
Incorrect; 42 points are required for the highest grade, not B.
Option B:
Incorrect; 40 is the threshold for the top grade, not B.
Option C:
Correct; 30 and higher points correspond to a grade B in OET Listening.
Option D:
Incorrect; this range does not meet the criteria for a grade B.
3.
How many questions are there in Listening Part A?
A) 12.
B) 42.
C) 24.
D) 6.
Show Answer
Explanations:
The claimed correct answer is C) 24 because the OET (Occupational English Test) Listening Part A typically consists of 24 questions designed to assess candidates' ability to understand workplace-related information in a healthcare setting. These questions are usually based on a recorded conversation or monologue.
Option Analysis:
Option A:
Incorrect; does not match the standard number of questions.
Option B:
Incorrect; exceeds the typical question count for OET Listening Part A.
Option C:
Correct; aligns with the standard number of questions in OET Listening Part A.
Option D:
Incorrect; is far below the usual number of questions.
4.
TRUE OR FALSE:You need to shade your answer in part B only.
A) True.
B) False.
C) All the above.
D) None of the above.
Show Answer
Explanations:
The claim that "You need to shade your answer in part B only" is not a universal rule for all questions, hence the statement is false. Therefore, Option B) False is correct.
Option Analysis:
Option A:
True - Incorrect as it contradicts the given statement.
Option B:
False - Correct as explained above.
Option C:
All the above - Incorrect since not all options are true.
Option D:
None of the above - Incorrect as Option B is correct.
5.
What is the opinion of the GP?
A) She was explaining why certain tests needs to be done.
B) She was against as to why the patient is adamant about the treatment.
C) It is good that the patient listened to his family.
D) None of the above.
Show Answer
Explanations:
It is good that the patient listened to his family indicates a positive outcome where the patient heeded advice from their family, which can be seen as beneficial in medical contexts. This option reflects an understanding of the supportive role families play and the importance of considering multiple perspectives.
Option Analysis:
Option A:
Incorrect. The GP was not explaining tests but rather the patient's attitude towards treatment.
Option B:
Incorrect. There is no indication that the GP was against the patient’s stance on treatment.
Option C:
Correct. This option accurately captures the positive aspect of the patient listening to family advice, which can be seen as a supportive and beneficial approach in medical decision-making.
Option D:
Incorrect. Option C is correct.
6.
How many extracts are there in Listening Part B?
Show Answer
Explanations:
The claimed correct answer is D) 6 because in the OET (Occupational English Test) Listening Part B, there are typically six extracts. Each extract corresponds to a different scenario and contains important information that candidates need to understand and remember.
Option Analysis:
Option A:
Incorrect as it suggests only three extracts.
Option B:
Incorrect as it also indicates two extracts, which is not the case in OET Listening Part B.
Option C:
Incorrect because four extracts are not part of the standard format for this section.
Option D:
Correct as it accurately reflects the number of extracts in OET Listening Part B.
7.
How many extracts are there in Listening Part C?
Show Answer
Explanations:
The OET (Occupational English Test) Listening Part C typically consists of two extracts. This format is designed to assess the candidate's ability to understand workplace-related information from multiple sources, which is crucial for healthcare professionals in their daily work environments.
Option Analysis:
Option A:
Incorrect. There are not four extracts.
Option B:
Incorrect. There are not three extracts.
Option C:
Correct. Two extracts are standard in Part C of the OET Listening test.
Option D:
Incorrect. There is only one extract, not a single extract as stated here.
8.
What is the first part of the Listening test focused on?
A) Matching Type.
B) True or False.
C) Fill in the blanks.
D) Multiple Choice.
Show Answer
Explanations:
The first part of the OET Listening test is typically focused on
Fill in the blanks
. This section tests your ability to understand and retain information from a short conversation, often related to healthcare settings. You will hear a recording and have to fill in missing words or phrases based on what you hear.
Option Analysis:
Option A:
Matching Type - Not the first part; used later for pairing items.
Option B:
True or False - Usually comes after Fill in the blanks to test comprehension of longer passages.
Option C:
Fill in the blanks - Correct. First section focusing on immediate recall and understanding.
Option D:
Multiple Choice - Used for questions based on detailed information or instructions, not the initial part.
9.
What medication needs to change dosage?
A) Amlodipine.
B) Bizoprolol.
C) Indipril.
D) None of the above.
Show Answer
Explanations:
Bizoprolol, a beta-blocker used to treat high blood pressure and heart conditions, often requires dosage adjustments based on the patient's response and tolerance. Changes may be necessary due to factors such as side effects or changes in health status.
Option Analysis:
Option A:
Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker for hypertension and angina; no specific need for frequent dosage change noted.
Option B:
Bizoprolol, as mentioned, may require dose adjustment due to individual patient responses and side effects.
Option C:
Indipril is an ACE inhibitor for hypertension; generally stable in dosing unless specific conditions arise.
Option D:
None of the above implies no medication needs dosage change, which contradicts Bizoprolol's variable requirements.
10.
How many seconds are you allowed to read the questions in Part C?
A) 20 seconds.
B) 30 seconds.
C) 90 seconds.
D) 60 seconds.
Show Answer
Explanations:
The claimed correct answer is C) 90 seconds because in the OET (Occupational English Test), Part C of the Listening section typically provides a longer time for reading questions and instructions to ensure that healthcare professionals have sufficient time to prepare before listening. This duration allows candidates to review multiple questions, understand the context, and manage their time effectively during the test.
Option Analysis:
Option A:
20 seconds is too short for reading several questions in Part C.
Option B:
30 seconds is insufficient for comprehensive preparation of multiple questions.
Option C:
90 seconds is the standard time given, allowing adequate preparation.
Option D:
60 seconds is not as long as needed for Part C's question format and complexity.
11.
In dr gibbens' opinion, why should patients' stories inform medical practice?
A) They provide an insight not gained from numbers alone.
B) They prove useful when testing new theories.
C) They are more accessible than statistics.
D) None of these.
Show Answer
Explanations:
In Dr. Gibbens' opinion, patients' stories provide a unique perspective that cannot be fully captured by numbers alone. Medical practice often benefits from understanding the human experience and context behind the data.
Option Analysis:
Option A:
Correct. Patients' stories offer insights into individual experiences and emotions that statistical data might not reveal.
Option B:
Incorrect. While testing new theories can be useful, it is not specifically mentioned as the reason for incorporating patients' stories in medical practice according to Dr. Gibbens.
Option C:
Incorrect. Accessibility of statistics versus stories is not discussed by Dr. Gibbens; both are valuable but from different perspectives.
Option D:
Incorrect. Option A is the correct answer provided in the question.
12.
What is the problem of the patient?
A) He does not believe he has a stroke.
B) He was asking why he has a stroke.
C) He needs reassurance that he does not have a stroke.
D) None of the above.
Show Answer
Explanations:
The patient does not believe he has a stroke, which indicates that there is a misunderstanding or misdiagnosis issue. This aligns with Option A as it directly addresses the patient's disbelief in having a stroke, suggesting a need for further clarification and reassurance.
Option Analysis:
Option A:
Correct. The patient does not believe he has a stroke, indicating a need to address his misunderstanding.
Option B:
Incorrect. The patient is questioning the presence of a stroke, not asking why it happened.
Option C:
Incorrect. The patient believes he does have a stroke and needs reassurance, which contradicts the given information.
Option D:
Incorrect. There is a clear issue with the patient's belief about his condition.
13.
What disadvantages of docters using patients' stories does dr gibbens identify?
A) Evidence-based research being disregarded.
B) Patients being encouraged to self-diagnose.
C) A tendency to jumb to conclusions.
D) None of these.
Show Answer
Explanations:
Dr. Gibbens identifies a tendency for doctors to jump to conclusions based on patients' stories, which can lead to misdiagnosis and inadequate treatment plans. This highlights the importance of thorough evidence-based research in medical practice.
Option Analysis:
Option A:
Evidence-based research being disregarded - Incorrect. Dr. Gibbens does not mention this as a disadvantage.
Option B:
Patients being encouraged to self-diagnose - Incorrect. This is not identified by Dr. Gibbens in the context of the question.
Option C:
A tendency to jump to conclusions - Correct. This aligns with Dr. Gibbens' identification of a potential pitfall when relying heavily on patients' stories without sufficient evidence-based research.
Option D:
None of these - Incorrect. Option C is correct according to the information provided.
14.
How many parts does the Listening test have?
Show Answer
Explanations:
The OET Listening test is divided into three parts: Part A, Part B, and Part C. Each part assesses different aspects of the candidate's ability to understand spoken English in an healthcare setting.
Option Analysis:
Option A:
Incorrect. The test does not have two parts.
Option B:
Incorrect. There is no single part for the entire Listening test.
Option C:
Correct. The OET Listening test consists of three distinct parts: A, B, and C.
Option D:
Incorrect. The test does not have four parts.
15.
Who will check Listening Part A in the actual exam?
A) Computer Scanner.
B) A human being.
C) Ms. Hana.
D) Certified OET Assessor.
Show Answer
Explanations:
The correct answer is D) Certified OET Assessor. In the actual exam, Listening Part A is checked by a certified OET assessor who ensures the accuracy and fairness of the marking process.
Option Analysis:
Option A:
Computer Scanner - Typically used for multiple-choice questions but not for subjective listening assessments.
Option B:
A human being - Too vague; specifies a certified assessor for accuracy and standardization.
Option C:
Ms. Hana - Not specified in the context, lacks reliability and consistency.
Option D:
Certified OET Assessor - Ensures professional and standardized evaluation of listening responses.
16.
What is the technique in Listening called?
A) CARE.
B) RAP.
C) AREA.
D) FATE.
Show Answer
Explanations:
The technique in Listening called FATE stands for Feedback, Apology, Thank you, and Encouragement. This approach is used to ensure effective communication and understanding during the OET Listening test.
Option Analysis:
Option A:
CARE does not relate to a specific listening technique in OET.
Option B:
RAP is not associated with any known listening techniques for OET.
Option C:
AREA is unrelated to the context of OET Listening techniques.
Option D:
FATE is correct as it refers to a communication technique used in OET Listening.
17.
What is the opinion of the doctor when the patient asked if there can only be a permanent physician to oversee his care?
A) She agreed but does not have any way to change it.
B) She is grateful and believed that she can do something about it.
C) She was displeased and offended.
D) None of the above.
Show Answer
Explanations:
The doctor agreed with the patient's request for a permanent physician to oversee his care but indicated that there is no feasible way to implement this change within the current system or resources.
Option Analysis:
Option A:
Correct. The doctor agreed, but acknowledged limitations in making such an arrangement.
Option B:
Incorrect. The doctor did not express gratitude or a willingness to address the issue.
Option C:
Incorrect. There is no indication of displeasure or offense from the doctor.
Option D:
Incorrect. Option A accurately describes the situation presented.
18.
How many items are there in Listening Part C?
A) 24.
B) 6.
C) 42.
D) 12.
Show Answer
Explanations:
The correct answer is D) 12. In the OET Listening Part C, there are typically 12 items that test the candidates' ability to understand detailed information and infer meaning from a healthcare-related conversation or monologue.
Option Analysis:
Option A:
Incorrect as it suggests more than the actual number of items in OET Listening Part C.
Option B:
Incorrect, indicating fewer items than what is actually present in this part of the test.
Option C:
Incorrect, suggesting a much larger number of items than are found in OET Listening Part C.
Option D:
Correct as it accurately reflects the number of items in OET Listening Part C.
19.
British and American spelling is accepted in Listening Part A.
A) True.
B) False.
C) All the above.
D) None of the above.
Show Answer
Explanations:
The claim is correct because the instruction states that British and American spelling is accepted in Listening Part A of Oet, indicating that both spellings are valid for this part of the exam.
Option Analysis:
Option A:
True. The statement aligns with the given information.
Option B:
False. This contradicts the provided instruction.
Option C:
All the above. Not applicable as only one option is correct based on the given context.
Option D:
None of the above. Incorrect since Option A is true.
20.
You will hear a vet talking about her involbement in the management of the practice where she works. How does she feel about jer role?
A) She accepts that its become surprisingly complex.
B) She wishes her boss took more interest in the finances.
C) She values the greater understanding it gives her of her work.
D) None of these.
Show Answer
Explanations:
The correct answer is C) She values the greater understanding it gives her of her work. This indicates that the vet finds value in gaining a deeper insight into the management aspects of the practice, which aligns with the statement provided.
Option Analysis:
Option A:
Incorrect as the passage does not mention the complexity becoming surprising.
Option B:
Incorrect as there is no indication that the vet wishes her boss took more interest in finances.
Option C:
Correct, as it directly matches the statement about valuing a greater understanding of her work.
Option D:
Incorrect since option C is correct and relevant to the passage.
21.
Why was the patient brought to the hospital?
A) He felt dizzy and has pins and needles sensation on his arm.
B) There was a numbness in his mouth.
C) He cannot lift his left arm.
D) None of the above.
Show Answer
Explanations:
Numbness in the mouth can be a symptom of various conditions, including neurological issues that may require immediate medical attention. This symptom could indicate a serious condition such as a stroke, which necessitates prompt evaluation by healthcare professionals to determine appropriate treatment and prevent potential complications.
Option Analysis:
Option A:
Dizziness and pins and needles sensation can also be symptoms of neurological issues but are less specific than numbness in the mouth.
Option B:
Correct. Numbness in the mouth is a symptom that may indicate serious conditions requiring immediate medical attention.
Option C:
Inability to lift an arm can also be a symptom of neurological issues but is more specific and severe than numbness alone, making it less likely as the sole reason for hospitalization without other symptoms.
Option D:
Incorrect. Option B provides a valid reason for hospitalization based on the given options.
22.
Why did chris decide against the practice known as 'taping'?
A) The patient was reluctant to use it.
B) It might give a false sense of security.
C) The treatment was succeeding without it.
D) None of these.
Show Answer
Explanations:
The correct answer is C) The treatment was succeeding without it. This indicates that Chris decided against 'taping' because the patient's condition was improving effectively through other means, making the use of taping unnecessary and potentially redundant.
Option Analysis:
Option A:
Patient reluctance does not directly explain why Chris chose to avoid using taping.
Option B:
While this could be a valid concern, it is not the reason given in the correct answer.
Option C:
This aligns with the provided correct answer, indicating that other methods were sufficient for treatment success.
Option D:
Incorrect as option C is the right choice.
23.
Why was the patient, s run up technique changed?
A) To enable her to gain more speed before take off.
B) To reduce the stress placed on her take-off leg.
C) To reinforce the break from her old mindset.
D) None of these.
Show Answer
Explanations:
The change in the patient's run-up technique was to reduce the stress placed on her take-off leg, which aligns with Option B. This modification likely aims at preventing injury or pain during the take-off phase of the activity, thereby ensuring a safer and more comfortable performance.
Option Analysis:
Option A:
Incorrect as it focuses on speed rather than reducing stress.
Option B:
Correct as stated in the claim.
Option C:
Irrelevant to the physical aspect of the technique change.
Option D:
Incorrect since Option B is valid.
24.
How long are you allowed to read the questions in Listening Part A?
A) 30 seconds.
B) 10 seconds.
C) 90 seconds.
D) 60 seconds.
Show Answer
Explanations:
The claimed correct answer is A) 30 seconds. This duration allows test takers to read and comprehend the questions before the audio begins, ensuring they can follow along effectively with the listening material.
Option Analysis:
Option A:
Correct. Allotted time for reading questions.
Option B:
Incorrect. Too short a timeframe to read and understand questions.
Option C:
Incorrect. Exceeds the necessary time needed for question preparation.
Option D:
Incorrect. Longer than required, potentially leading to unnecessary stress or inattention during reading.
Frequently Asked Questions
What is the OET Listening Assessment?
The OET Listening Assessment evaluates your ability to understand spoken English in healthcare contexts. It includes parts A, B, and C, each focusing on different listening skills relevant to medical professionals.
How long should I prepare for OET Listening?
Preparation time can vary based on your current proficiency level, but it is recommended to allocate several months to familiarize yourself with the test structure and practice different listening techniques.
What are some OET Listening Techniques?
Techniques include predicting content, taking notes, understanding key phrases, and managing time effectively. These help in comprehending the context and answering questions accurately.
How is OET Listening graded?
Grading criteria for OET Listening assesses your ability to understand a range of spoken English in healthcare settings, including medical consultations and patient information. Scores reflect your performance across different parts of the test.
What is the role of OET Listening in practice?
OET Listening helps healthcare professionals develop essential communication skills needed for their roles, ensuring they can effectively understand and respond to patients' needs in English.