This quiz works best with JavaScript enabled. Home > English Grammar > Grammar > Test Prep > Sat > Sat Reading – Quiz 14 🏠 Homepage 📘 Download PDF Books 📕 Premium PDF Books Sat Reading Quiz 14 (60 MCQs) Quiz Instructions Select an option to see the correct answer instantly. 1. Which combination of communication elements would be most effective for a formal presentation? A) High pitch and fast pace. B) Appropriate volume and clear articulation. C) Loud volume and rapid speech. D) Low pitch and mumbled words. Show Answer Correct Answer: B) Appropriate volume and clear articulation. 2. Which of the following is NOT a reason why governments make policies regarding natural resources? A) Impacting resource availability. B) Controlling resource extraction. C) Managing resource waste. D) Influencing resource trade. Show Answer Correct Answer: C) Managing resource waste. 3. Which literary device is commonly tested in the SAT Reading section? A) Hyperbole. B) Alliteration. C) Metaphor. D) Onomatopoeia. Show Answer Correct Answer: C) Metaphor. 4. According to the passage, the concept of space involves understanding A) Form, distance, and size. B) How light travels through the atmosphere. C) Patches of color. D) Being able to touch an object. Show Answer Correct Answer: A) Form, distance, and size. 5. Choose the best correction: A) That those. B) That the. C) So that that. D) That, that. Show Answer Correct Answer: B) That the. 6. Based on lines 21-32, we can infer that a birth a child A) Recognizes his mother's face immediately. B) Has none of the problems that a newly sighted person experiences. C) Has more acute sight than hearing. D) Takes a while to learn to differentiate objects visually. Show Answer Correct Answer: D) Takes a while to learn to differentiate objects visually. 7. What does P.O.V. stand for A) Point of View. B) Process of View. C) Process of Elimination. D) Point of Voice. Show Answer Correct Answer: A) Point of View. 8. How much time do I have on the writing and language section of the SAT? A) 35 minutes. B) 1 hour. C) Unlimited time. D) 95 minutes. Show Answer Correct Answer: A) 35 minutes. 9. WHICH STATEMENT IS SUPPORTED BY FIG 2 A) A. B) D. C) B. D) C. Show Answer Correct Answer: D) C. 10. She took over the rein of her husbands cattle. Reins mean A) Control. B) Affairs. C) Harvest. D) End. Show Answer Correct Answer: A) Control. 11. Why should you read the blurb? A) It comes first in the passage. B) It has important information and sometimes and answer to a question. C) If will tell you publishing company of the text. D) None of the above. Show Answer Correct Answer: B) It has important information and sometimes and answer to a question. 12. The word denounced also means A) To commend. B) To inform against something. C) To praise. D) To acknowledge. Show Answer Correct Answer: B) To inform against something. 13. In addition to being an accomplished psychologist himself, Francis Cecil Sumner was a ..... of increasing the opportunity for Black students to study psychology, helping to found the psychology department at Howard University, a historically Black university, in 1930.Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase? A) Supplement to. B) Proponent of. C) Beneficiary of. D) Distraction for. Show Answer Correct Answer: B) Proponent of. 14. The writer's attitude or feeling toward a person, thing, place event or situation is called: A) Mood. B) Theme. C) Tone. D) Conflict. Show Answer Correct Answer: C) Tone. 15. Skipping the test instructions is okay since they are always the same. A) True. B) False. C) All the above. D) None of the above. Show Answer Correct Answer: A) True. 16. What is not a listed function of evidence in Purpose questions? A) Explain. B) Support. C) Define. D) Contradict. Show Answer Correct Answer: C) Define. 17. She was ..... happy to care about the rain. A) Too. B) Two. C) To. D) None of the above. Show Answer Correct Answer: A) Too. 18. What is the primary purpose of the SAT Writing section? A) To test mathematical skills. B) To assess reading comprehension. C) To evaluate grammar and usage. D) To measure scientific knowledge. Show Answer Correct Answer: C) To evaluate grammar and usage. 19. True or False?Spending 17 minutes on a reading passage is the perfect amount of time. A) False. People should take no more than 20 minutes on a passage. B) False. People should spend no more than 12 minutes on a passage. C) True. 17 minutes is a good amount of time. D) Who cares how much time you spend? Take your time!. Show Answer Correct Answer: B) False. People should spend no more than 12 minutes on a passage. 20. As used in line 67, "over-scrupulous" most nearly means A) Too strict a regard for what is right. B) Overly critical of others. C) Obsessed with minor details. D) Hones to a fault. Show Answer Correct Answer: A) Too strict a regard for what is right. 21. Passage #1:In the passage, Akira addresses Chie with A) Affection but not genuine love. B) Amusement but not mocking disparagement. C) Respect but not utter deference. D) Objectivity but not complete impartiality. Show Answer Correct Answer: C) Respect but not utter deference. 22. As used in line 24, "urge" most nearly means A) Require. B) Advocate. C) Hasteen. D) Stimulate. Show Answer Correct Answer: B) Advocate. 23. In the SAT Writing and Language section, which task best fits Command of Evidence? A) Fixing subject-verb agreement errors. B) Choosing precise academic vocabulary. C) Combining clauses for variety. D) Checking if details support a claim. Show Answer Correct Answer: D) Checking if details support a claim. 24. According to the passage, what is one consequence of overconsumption? A) Greater resource use. B) Lower labor costs. C) Land, air, and water pollution. D) Increased waste recycling. Show Answer Correct Answer: C) Land, air, and water pollution. 25. How many questions will you have to answer and how much time will you have for the entire test? A) 52 questions in 65 minutes. B) 65 questions in 52 minutes. C) 47 questions in 57 minutes. D) 55 questions in 45 minutes. Show Answer Correct Answer: A) 52 questions in 65 minutes. 26. As used in line 72, "occupy" most nearly means A) Possess. B) Overtake. C) Monopolize. D) Revel in. Show Answer Correct Answer: A) Possess. 27. How does the speaker suggest using the video's description? A) To find grammar rules. B) For entertainment purposes. C) As a guide to answer vocabulary questions. D) To access study resources. Show Answer Correct Answer: D) To access study resources. 28. In the Analysis of History and Science section, you will be asked questions about examining hypothesis and interpreting data from charts, graphs, and maps. A) True. B) False. C) All the above. D) None of the above. Show Answer Correct Answer: A) True. 29. In a literary analysis, how can identifying the author's purpose help you interpret the meaning of a text? A) It allows you to ignore the author's message. B) It helps you understand why the author made certain choices and what message they intended to convey. C) It makes the text less interesting. D) It provides factual information. Show Answer Correct Answer: B) It helps you understand why the author made certain choices and what message they intended to convey. 30. Fill in the blank with the correct verb form:Neither of my two bags ..... adequate for this trip. (Singular Subject/Plural Verb) A) Is. B) Are. C) Have. D) Were. Show Answer Correct Answer: A) Is. 31. The ancient practice of fermentation ..... not only preserved food but also created entirely new flavors and textures, leading to the development of countless culinary traditions across different cultures.Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English? A) Having. B) Have. C) Had. D) Has. Show Answer Correct Answer: D) Has. 32. Which communication elements does the passage explicitly mention Sarah controlling? A) Pace and pitch only. B) Volume and articulation only. C) Feedback and messaging only. D) Channel and noise only. Show Answer Correct Answer: B) Volume and articulation only. 33. Looking at one's phone ..... disruptive to good sleep. A) Is. B) Are. C) Were. D) None of the above. Show Answer Correct Answer: A) Is. 34. In paragraph 6, the author includes lines 79-83 to convey that A) The author was irritated by the complacent lifestyle that others enjoyed. B) The author thought that people should embrace the heat and find ways to enjoy it. C) The author was not forced to deal with the heat in the ways he once did. D) Escaping the heat would lead to people running away from problems they should be dealing with. Show Answer Correct Answer: C) The author was not forced to deal with the heat in the ways he once did. 35. What is the effect of using a first-person point of view in a narrative passage? A) It creates a sense of objectivity. B) It distances the reader from the narrator. C) It provides a personal and subjective perspective. D) It limits the emotional impact. Show Answer Correct Answer: C) It provides a personal and subjective perspective. 36. Many ancient sculptures of people's heads are missing their noses. This is because the nose is the most ..... part of a sculpture of a person's head. It is delicate and sticks out from the rest of the sculpture, making it especially easy to break.Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase? A) Fragile. B) Sophisticated. C) Common. D) Recognizable. Show Answer Correct Answer: A) Fragile. 37. What questions should you start with within a reading passage? A) Go in order. B) Paired Questions. C) Start with the last question. D) Line Reference Questions. Show Answer Correct Answer: D) Line Reference Questions. 38. The most effective way to overcome communication barriers is to: A) Speak as loudly as possible. B) Use multiple communication channels. C) Avoid feedback. D) Eliminate all background noise. Show Answer Correct Answer: B) Use multiple communication channels. 39. The octopus demonstrates remarkable problem-solving abilities ..... research has shown these creatures can use tools, navigate mazes, and even learn by observing other octopuses. Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English? Mark only one oval. A) So. B) Therefore. C) Because. D) Since. Show Answer Correct Answer: D) Since. 40. The main idea of the passage is to convey to the reader that: A) Robust evidence supports the theory that the Cretaceous-Paleogene extinction was a result of an asteroid. B) The K-Pg boundary has provided knowledge regarding fossils that was previously unknown. C) The Chicxulub Crater is the most diverse area for fossil remains on the planet. D) The Cretaceous-Paleogene extinction was a result of a harmful excess of iridium. Show Answer Correct Answer: A) Robust evidence supports the theory that the Cretaceous-Paleogene extinction was a result of an asteroid. 41. Textual Analysis specific topics are inferences, summaries, analogies, and citations. A) True. B) False. C) All the above. D) None of the above. Show Answer Correct Answer: A) True. 42. Which of the following is an example of a literary analysis question you might find on the SAT Reading section? A) What is the publication date of the passage?. B) How does the author use metaphor to enhance the theme?. C) What is the main idea of the passage?. D) What is the author's profession?. Show Answer Correct Answer: B) How does the author use metaphor to enhance the theme?. 43. What is the maximum score on the Reading Section of the digital SAT? A) 800. B) 1500. C) 1600. D) 600. Show Answer Correct Answer: A) 800. 44. Which of the following best describes the author's tone in a passage that is critical and questioning? A) Skeptical. B) Optimistic. C) Joyful. D) Neutral. Show Answer Correct Answer: A) Skeptical. 45. What is the primary purpose of the 'Words in Context' questions on the SAT? A) To test mathematical skills. B) To assess vocabulary understanding. C) To evaluate historical knowledge. D) To measure scientific reasoning. Show Answer Correct Answer: B) To assess vocabulary understanding. 46. In 1949, Frank Zamboni developed an ice rink resurfacing machine. As Zamboni's machine moved along the rink's surface, it first scraped off the top layer of ice ..... it sprayed water into the deep grooves left behind by customers' skates. Lastly, it smoothed over the newly formed ice. Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition? A) Next,. B) In contrast. C) Similarly,. D) For example. Show Answer Correct Answer: A) Next,. 47. The test-taking strategy when you get rid of answer choices that are obviously wrong or do not answer the question is called ..... A) Eliminating answers. B) Managing your time. C) Looking for clues and context clues. D) Getting plenty of rest and eating a good breakfast. Show Answer Correct Answer: A) Eliminating answers. 48. What is a common feature of SAT Reading passages? A) They are all fictional stories. B) They include graphs and charts. C) They are followed by multiple-choice questions. D) They are written in a foreign language. Show Answer Correct Answer: C) They are followed by multiple-choice questions. 49. O2 Arena takes place in an alternate version of Nigeria where breathable air is a rare commodity ..... people must purchase it with currency called O2 credits. Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition? A) As a result,. B) In any case,. C) Earlier,. D) Nevertheless,. Show Answer Correct Answer: A) As a result,. 50. What type of first question would you most likely encounter? A) Words in context. B) General. C) Inference. D) Command of evidence. Show Answer Correct Answer: B) General. 51. According to Chart 1, the gap between the number of women and men working is the largest in which of the following countries A) Japan. B) Britian. C) Finland. D) India. Show Answer Correct Answer: D) India. 52. Marcus's favorite casserole recipe requires 3 eggs and makes 6 servings. Marcus will modify the recipe by using 5 eggs and increasing all other ingredients in the recipe proportionally. What is the total number of servings the modified recipe will make? A) 10. B) 6. C) 8. D) 15. E) 12. Show Answer Correct Answer: A) 10. 53. As used in line 32, "observed" most nearly means A) Noticed. B) Followed. C) Contemplated. D) Scrutinized. Show Answer Correct Answer: B) Followed. 54. Gift givers believe that bigger or more expensive gifts convey stronger signals of thoughtfulness, care and consideration. A) Counteract. B) Communicate. C) Transport. D) Exchange. Show Answer Correct Answer: B) Communicate. 55. The Great Wall of China wasn't built as a single continuous structure ..... it was constructed in sections over many centuries by different dynasties, each adding their own architectural styles and building techniques. Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English? Mark only one oval. A) Instead. B) However. C) But rather. D) Rather. Show Answer Correct Answer: C) But rather. 56. Reading Question #23 A) C. B) D. C) B. D) A. Show Answer Correct Answer: B) D. 57. The author provides information about fossils to convey all of the following EXCEPT: A) The species of fossils found in the K-Pg boundary perished as a result of a lack of food. B) The range of species in the K-Pg boundary varied from those above and below the boundary. C) The lack of diversity in plant fossils points to a relatively immediate devastation of species. D) Fossils were instrumental in learning about the Cretaceous-Paleogene extinction. Show Answer Correct Answer: A) The species of fossils found in the K-Pg boundary perished as a result of a lack of food. 58. Should you go in order on the exam? A) Yes. B) No. C) All the above. D) None of the above. Show Answer Correct Answer: B) No. 59. Which word best replaces But at the start of paragraph 2? A) Therefore. B) For example. C) However. D) Similarly. Show Answer Correct Answer: C) However. 60. The repetition in "we cannot dedicate-we cannot consecrate-we cannot hallow" emphasizes: A) Historical examples. B) Humor. C) The limits of words compared to actions. D) Audience criticism. Show Answer Correct Answer: C) The limits of words compared to actions. ← PreviousNext →Related QuizzesTest Prep QuizzesGrammar QuizzesSat Reading Quiz 1Sat Reading Quiz 2Sat Reading Quiz 3Sat Reading Quiz 4Sat Reading Quiz 5Sat Reading Quiz 6Sat Reading Quiz 7Sat Reading Quiz 8 🏠 Back to Homepage 📘 Download PDF Books 📕 Premium PDF Books