This quiz works best with JavaScript enabled. Home > English Grammar > Grammar > Test Prep > Gcse > Gcse English Language – Quiz 12 🏠 Homepage 📘 Download PDF Books 📕 Premium PDF Books Gcse English Language Quiz 12 (60 MCQs) Quiz Instructions Select an option to see the correct answer instantly. 1. What should you avoid doing in your answer for Paper 1 Question 4? A) Using quotes from the text. B) Planning your answer. C) Discussing the writer's methods. D) Repeating the same point multiple times. Show Answer Correct Answer: D) Repeating the same point multiple times. 2. What is NOT an example of a genre A) An author's purpose. B) YouTube Video. C) Letter. D) Speech. Show Answer Correct Answer: A) An author's purpose. 3. Which exam board run the course that we will be taking? A) Ed Excel (Pearson). B) SQA. C) Cambridge Exams. D) AQA. Show Answer Correct Answer: A) Ed Excel (Pearson). 4. What should you look for when analyzing the writer's craft? A) The length of the text. B) Effective words, phrases, and techniques. C) The number of paragraphs. D) The font style. Show Answer Correct Answer: B) Effective words, phrases, and techniques. 5. Before reading the extract you need to A) Highlight the first line. B) Split it into 3. C) Split it into 4. D) Split it in half. Show Answer Correct Answer: B) Split it into 3. 6. How long should you spend on writing your response for Paper 1 Question 4? A) 30 minutes. B) 15 minutes. C) 20 minutes. D) 25 minutes. Show Answer Correct Answer: C) 20 minutes. 7. Which words best create a "melancholy" atmosphere? A) Joyful, bright. B) Quiet, desolate. C) Busy, energetic. D) Festive, lively. Show Answer Correct Answer: B) Quiet, desolate. 8. How many marks are in Paper 1? A) 40. B) 200. C) 80. D) 160. Show Answer Correct Answer: C) 80. 9. Sam tries to reassure the others after the mysterious tapping resumes by ..... A) He checks his phone for messages. B) He laughs and changes the subject. C) He suggests it's just the wind again. D) He offers to open the door himself. Show Answer Correct Answer: C) He suggests it's just the wind again. 10. What is the term for conversation between characters? A) Dialogue. B) Monologue. C) Narration. D) Dialect. Show Answer Correct Answer: A) Dialogue. 11. What do both writers ultimately reveal about the nature of medical work? A) It is easy and often glamorous. B) It is physically and emotionally demanding but reveals deep humanity. C) It is mostly administrative and detached. D) It is hopeless and dehumanising. Show Answer Correct Answer: B) It is physically and emotionally demanding but reveals deep humanity. 12. Identify the semantic field: "crunch, " "splinter, " "shatter." A) Breaking. B) Silence. C) Cooking. D) Swimming. Show Answer Correct Answer: A) Breaking. 13. Section A (Questions 1-4) assesses your reading or writing skills? A) Reading. B) Writing. C) Speaking and Listening. D) None of the above. Show Answer Correct Answer: A) Reading. 14. Where is SPAG (spelling, punctuation and grammar) assessed in your English exams? A) In the language papers Section A and Section B. B) In both sections of the Language paper and one section of Paper 1 of the Literature (Section B). C) In all sections of the Language and the Literature papers. D) It is not assessed. Show Answer Correct Answer: B) In both sections of the Language paper and one section of Paper 1 of the Literature (Section B). 15. Sam gives the advice " ..... " that shows cautious reasoning in face of potential manipulation. A) Turn off the corridor lights now. B) Don't open it if someone is messing. C) Run to the playground immediately. D) Post the story online quickly. Show Answer Correct Answer: B) Don't open it if someone is messing. 16. According to the revision guide, what structure should be used for analytical responses? A) 5-Paragraph Essay. B) Introduction, Body, Conclusion. C) PEEL structure (Point, Evidence, Explain, Link). D) Story Mountain. Show Answer Correct Answer: C) PEEL structure (Point, Evidence, Explain, Link). 17. How can facts be important in texts? A) They provide evidence and back up the writer. B) They make the text look better. C) They aren't really that important. D) They make the writer look good. Show Answer Correct Answer: A) They provide evidence and back up the writer. 18. How is the increasing tension of the section emphasized in the passage? A) By using long, descriptive sentences. B) By focusing on the weather. C) By describing the scenery. D) By using short sentences such as 'I prepared for my end'. Show Answer Correct Answer: D) By using short sentences such as 'I prepared for my end'. 19. What type of English is typically used in articles? A) Slang. B) Regional dialects. C) Colloquial English. D) Standard English. Show Answer Correct Answer: D) Standard English. 20. Which word in the following sentence is an adverb?He stood proudly holding up his award. A) Stood. B) Award. C) Proudly. D) He. Show Answer Correct Answer: C) Proudly. 21. What date is the Paper 1 exam? A) 3rd June. B) 6th June. C) 1st June. D) 12th June. Show Answer Correct Answer: B) 6th June. 22. Evaluations are worth how many marks across both papers? A) 6. B) 30. C) 15. D) 20. Show Answer Correct Answer: B) 30. 23. Fill in the blank:The setting of a story includes the ..... and ..... A) Characters and plot. B) Beginning and end. C) Conflict and resolution. D) Time and place. Show Answer Correct Answer: D) Time and place. 24. Fill in the blank:Examiners should use the full range of ..... Do not hesitate to give full marks if the response merits it. A) Questions. B) Grades. C) Answers. D) Marks. Show Answer Correct Answer: D) Marks. 25. Which order should you answer the questions in? A) 5, 4, 3, 2, 1. B) It's up to you. C) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5. D) 1, 2, 4, 3, 5. Show Answer Correct Answer: B) It's up to you. 26. What is the purpose of using a cliffhanger in your response? A) To avoid writing a conclusion. B) To end the story abruptly. C) To confuse the reader. D) To leave the reader wanting more. Show Answer Correct Answer: D) To leave the reader wanting more. 27. Which of the following is NOT a language technique? A) Rule of three. B) Metaphor. C) Amanuensis. D) Personification. Show Answer Correct Answer: C) Amanuensis. 28. If I start a letter by saying Dear sir/madam, how should the letter be signed off? A) Yours sincerely. B) Yours faithfully. C) Warm wishes. D) Kind regards. Show Answer Correct Answer: B) Yours faithfully. 29. Which assessment objective requires students to compare writers' ideas and perspectives, as well as how these are conveyed, across two or more texts? A) AO2. B) AO4. C) AO1. D) AO3. Show Answer Correct Answer: D) AO3. 30. What is the pivotal point in the structure of the passage? A) Sudden appearance and erratic behaviour of the hyena after Pi's description of its hunting ability. B) The calm and peaceful setting before the arrival of the hyena. C) Pi's recollection of his family's journey before the shipwreck. D) The detailed description of the lifeboat's construction. Show Answer Correct Answer: A) Sudden appearance and erratic behaviour of the hyena after Pi's description of its hunting ability. 31. Jayden's reaction to the situation, which reveals his character under pressure, is ..... A) Voice tight, tries not to panic. B) Laughs loudly, mocks the fear. C) Stays silent, shows no concern. D) Gets angry, blames his friends. Show Answer Correct Answer: A) Voice tight, tries not to panic. 32. What type of text is Source A in the GCSE English Language Paper 1 insert? A) A 20th Century play script. B) A 19th Century newspaper article. C) A 21st Century prose-fiction extract. D) A 21st Century poem. Show Answer Correct Answer: C) A 21st Century prose-fiction extract. 33. What is the purpose of the 'Language Paper 1' in the AQA GCSE English Language exam? A) To test mathematical skills. B) To assess reading and creative writing. C) To evaluate historical knowledge. D) To measure physical endurance. Show Answer Correct Answer: B) To assess reading and creative writing. 34. Why might a writer use emotive language? A) To confuse the reader. B) To appeal to logic. C) To provoke an emotional response. D) None of the above. Show Answer Correct Answer: C) To provoke an emotional response. 35. Paper 2 Question 2 is worth how many marks? A) 12. B) 4. C) 8. D) 10. Show Answer Correct Answer: C) 8. 36. Emotive language is when you ..... A) Address the reader directly. B) Cry a lot. C) Use strong description (adjectives and adverbs) to persuade your reader by playing on their emotions. D) None of the above. Show Answer Correct Answer: C) Use strong description (adjectives and adverbs) to persuade your reader by playing on their emotions. 37. In Section B (the writing section) how many of the marks go on SPaG? A) 10. B) 20. C) 15. D) 5. Show Answer Correct Answer: A) 10. 38. 'Lennie, a huge man that he was, dragged his arms behind him the way a bear drags his paws.' This is an example of ..... A) Metaphor. B) Animalism. C) Animal Imagery. D) None of the above. Show Answer Correct Answer: C) Animal Imagery. 39. The fiction paper is worth ..... % of whole course A) 45%. B) 100%. C) 40%. D) 60%. Show Answer Correct Answer: C) 40%. 40. How can words reveal a theme in a text? A) By creating a particular mood. B) By listing facts. C) By providing historical context. D) By describing characters. Show Answer Correct Answer: A) By creating a particular mood. 41. What effect does double adjectives have? A) Makes sentences longer for no reason. B) Creates layered and vivid description. C) Confuses the reader. D) Removes atmosphere. Show Answer Correct Answer: B) Creates layered and vivid description. 42. What is the significance of the setting in a story? A) The setting is insignificant and does not affect the story. B) The setting provides the time and place, which helps establish the context and mood. C) The setting is only used to confuse the readers. D) The setting is a minor detail that can be ignored. Show Answer Correct Answer: B) The setting provides the time and place, which helps establish the context and mood. 43. Which of the following words best describe Assessment Objective 4? A) Evaluation. B) Analysis. C) Understanding. D) Spelling, punctuation and grammar. Show Answer Correct Answer: A) Evaluation. 44. Reading Text 1, how does the writer use language to interest and inform the reader? A) By using complex vocabulary and technical jargon. B) By using simple language and short sentences. C) By using engaging language and relevant examples. D) By using only factual information without any examples. Show Answer Correct Answer: C) By using engaging language and relevant examples. 45. In Source B, when Seacole says 'God help him!', what does this reveal about her attitude? A) Dismissive and distant. B) Hopeless and despairing. C) Compassionate and prayerful. D) Fearful of the injured man. Show Answer Correct Answer: C) Compassionate and prayerful. 46. Which assessment objective requires students to identify and interpret explicit and implicit information and ideas, and to select and synthesise evidence from different texts? A) AO4. B) AO1. C) AO2. D) AO3. Show Answer Correct Answer: B) AO1. 47. True or False:English Language Paper 2 will ALWAYS include a 19th century source. The other will be from either 20th or 21st century. A) True. B) False. C) All the above. D) None of the above. Show Answer Correct Answer: A) True. 48. Which connective can be used to show contrast between ideas? A) As with. B) Similarly. C) In contrast. D) Likewise. Show Answer Correct Answer: C) In contrast. 49. According to the GCSE English Language-8700/1-Sample Mark Scheme, what is the mark range for Upper Level 1? A) 1-3 marks. B) 7-9 marks. C) 4-6 marks. D) 10-12 marks. Show Answer Correct Answer: C) 4-6 marks. 50. What is the main purpose of a slow-paced opening? A) To confuse the reader. B) To build expectation and mood. C) To explain the ending. D) To summarise characters. Show Answer Correct Answer: B) To build expectation and mood. 51. How many marks is Question 5 worth? A) 24. B) 16. C) 40. D) 20. Show Answer Correct Answer: C) 40. 52. Why is planning your answer important for Paper 1 Question 4? A) It helps to reduce the word count. B) It ensures a structured and comprehensive response. C) It is not necessary for high marks. D) It allows you to avoid using quotes. Show Answer Correct Answer: B) It ensures a structured and comprehensive response. 53. 'He marched towards the door and didn't look back.'Which answer analyses the quotation clearly? A) The word marched makes it seem like the man was maybe a soldier. He didn't look back which means he knows where he was going. B) The writer has used the verb "marched" to suggest that the man is possibly angry or determined as it has connotations of walking with purpose. C) All the above. D) None of the above. Show Answer Correct Answer: B) The writer has used the verb "marched" to suggest that the man is possibly angry or determined as it has connotations of walking with purpose. 54. DAFOREST Techniques-Multiple Choice2. Which of the following is an example of a rhetorical question? A) The sun is shining brightly. B) Why don't we try harder?. C) Statistics show improvement. D) Everyone loves a good story. Show Answer Correct Answer: B) Why don't we try harder?. 55. Which punctuation mark can help build tension? A) Ellipsis ( ). B) Dash-. C) Both A and B. D) Full stop only. Show Answer Correct Answer: C) Both A and B. 56. Which of these terms would you be unlikely to use in the evaluative answers for Q4 of Language Paper 1? A) Skilfully. B) Disappointingly. C) Successfully. D) Persuasively. Show Answer Correct Answer: B) Disappointingly. 57. How many TEA paragraphs do you need to do for question 3, paper 1? A) Three. B) One. C) Four. D) Two. Show Answer Correct Answer: D) Two. 58. What is the purpose of extended writing tasks in English Language exams? A) To test students' ability to memorize information. B) To evaluate students' knowledge of historical events. C) The purpose of extended writing tasks in English Language exams is to evaluate students' writing skills, critical thinking abilities, and language proficiency. D) To assess students' physical fitness. Show Answer Correct Answer: C) The purpose of extended writing tasks in English Language exams is to evaluate students' writing skills, critical thinking abilities, and language proficiency. 59. In 7a, you're finding & comparing language & structure features A) True. B) False. C) All the above. D) None of the above. Show Answer Correct Answer: B) False. 60. Transactional writing is the final question is worth ..... A) 20 marks. B) 10 marks. C) 45 marks. D) 40 marks. Show Answer Correct Answer: D) 40 marks. ← PreviousNext →Related QuizzesTest Prep QuizzesGrammar QuizzesGcse English Language Quiz 1Gcse English Language Quiz 2Gcse English Language Quiz 3Gcse English Language Quiz 4Gcse English Language Quiz 5Gcse English Language Quiz 6Gcse English Language Quiz 7Gcse English Language Quiz 8 🏠 Back to Homepage 📘 Download PDF Books 📕 Premium PDF Books